Olivant, your comments are irrelevant to my questions. I'm not interested in law or what the code is. It is what it is. I'm asking if ruling of a local court has the power to make another sovereign nation pay damages. Shouldn't that be power of an international court? If some assets are frozen, shouldn't that be a whole other case to see who gets that? If any court can have other nations pay any sort of damages, Iran can have couple of local cases in Iranian courts, with Iranian juries who are obviously biased and sue the US for giving aid to Saddam during 8 year war between Iraq and Iran, shooting down an Iranian passenger airplane killing everyone aboard, and so on and so forth.