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Originally posted by EnzoBaker:
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Originally posted by Krlea:
[b] Quick question: At the end of Godfather II, Why does Michael start accusing Tom? Is it just Michael's paranoia getting him and Tom is the only one left to accuse? Besides the job offers, is there something that I am missing?
It was to lay the groundwork for GF III. The MIchael-Tom Hagen conflict was going to be the major story line. wink [/b]
I don't think so. The two films were more than 15 years apart, and, if I'm not mistaken, MP & FFC originally had no intention of making #3 until Paramount twisted their arms (and probably waved a lot of money at them).

"Difficult....not impossible"